Found a good article demonstrating the effect of salience on how we respond to costs. It uses the e-z pass system to look at how we are less responsive to less salient taxes (that is, more mentally taxing to remember, or not at the forefront of our consciousness). Unsurprisingly, it finds that less salient taxes produce fewer distortions. I like the article not because of its findings so much, which I consider intuitively obvious, but because E-Z pass is the perfect system to look at for showing the salience effect so starkly and nearly irrefutably. Wish I'd thought of it!
I came across the article via the Freakonomics blog. The poster there, Ayres, makes the case for irrational-number taxation using the same (though I do not think he's seriously advocating it). The idea is that you take some less salient number (he uses e^2) and set that as our sales tax for less distortionary effect and higher tax revenue. This idea intrigues me, and it'd be fun if we lived in a world where such thinks could be easily experimented with to see the results.
Out of sight, out of mind is one thing. If you're not presented with something directly it will be less salient, sure. But as far as this sales tax system is concerned, I don't think you'd get much out of sight, out of mind effect. You'd be looking more at difficulty to recall itself, given most people won't know Euler's number off hand. But I suspect that the result will just be that people don't concern themselves at all with Euler's number, but will simply round the final product off to one or two decimal places as Ayres himself does in the article, and that will be it, never again trying to calculate Euler's number or its square. So the total effect would just be that the remainder which has been rounded off has no effect on their behaviour.
Getting back to the idea of out of sight, out of mind, I've long since had the suspicion that fees serve this role for firms, to a large extent. I tried a while back to find research to back up this suspicion, but I was unsuccessful. I know it must be out there but it eluded my first attempt. My postulation is that because fees are often not obviously tied to costs, or that even when they are they are not well advertised at the point in the decision making process where the agent starts to form their opinions on whether or where to purchase, the fee will have less effect on purchase rate than a straight-up increase in price equal to the amount of the fee.
If this theory holds water, could we expect over-consumption of goods with higher fees? Assuming of course that gains in fee income are offset by drops in base price, as one would expect in an effectively competitive market. While the previous paragraph seems to make intuitive sense to me, the above sentence seems paradoxically improbable, making me think I'm missing something important in my reasoning...
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